Play of the Day

DeputyUICHousto

Addicted to Softballfans
R1 on 3rd base, R2 on 1st base with 1 out. B4 hits a sharp ground ball to F6. R1 is advancing to the plate and R2 is advancing to 2nd base. R2 is obstructed by F3 while moving to 2nd base. F6 fields the batted ball and throws to F4 for a force out at 2nd base. F4 in an attempt to double B4 at 1st base throws the ball into dead ball territory. What does the umpire do in this situation?
 

ureout

The Veteran
R1 on 3rd base, R2 on 1st base with 1 out. B4 hits a sharp ground ball to F6. R1 is advancing to the plate and R2 is advancing to 2nd base. R2 is obstructed by F3 while moving to 2nd base. F6 fields the batted ball and throws to F4 for a force out at 2nd base. F4 in an attempt to double B4 at 1st base throws the ball into dead ball territory. What does the umpire do in this situation?

run scores from 3rd.... I have a delayed dead ball for obstruction on F3, then it is my judgment on whether or not the runner would be out or safe at 2nd if OBS had not occurred.. if my call was safe he'd be awarded 3rd ... B/R is awarded 2nd base on overthrow since he had not attained 1b
 

DeputyUICHousto

Addicted to Softballfans
run scores from 3rd.... I have a delayed dead ball for obstruction on F3, then it is my judgment on whether or not the runner would be out or safe at 2nd if OBS had not occurred.. if my call was safe he'd be awarded 3rd ... B/R is awarded 2nd base on overthrow since he had not attained 1b

How can you call an obstructed runner out between to two bases in which the obstruction occurred in this case? Calling the runner out does not meet any of the requirements for doing so. The runner did not commit interference, nor miss a base, nor leave a base too soon on a caught fly ball.

In this play wouldn't the ball become dead once the obstructed runner is put out at 2nd base? If so, then no other action can occur.
 

longball101

Part Time Player
run scores from 3rd.... I have a delayed dead ball for obstruction on F3, then it is my judgment on whether or not the runner would be out or safe at 2nd if OBS had not occurred.. if my call was safe he'd be awarded 3rd ... B/R is awarded 2nd base on overthrow since he had not attained 1b


I Agree with ureout.....
 

BretMan

Addicted to Softballfans
First, call and signal the obstruction.

As the play continues, R2 is put out in between the bases where he was obstructed. At that moment the ball becomes dead, the instant that the obstructed runner is put out.

The umpire then awards each runner whichever base he judges they would have reached, minus the obstruction.

R2 would not have safely reached second base. But, since the batter-runner will be placed on first base, R2 must be placed on second base.

R1 should be awarded home.

End result: still one out. One run scores. There are now runners on first and second base.
 

longball101

Part Time Player
Yup, kinda glossed over that and failed to elaborate that in no way the guy going to 2nd is out, and agree with the resto_O
 

DeputyUICHousto

Addicted to Softballfans
First, call and signal the obstruction.

As the play continues, R2 is put out in between the bases where he was obstructed. At that moment the ball becomes dead, the instant that the obstructed runner is put out.

The umpire then awards each runner whichever base he judges they would have reached, minus the obstruction.

R2 would not have safely reached second base. But, since the batter-runner will be placed on first base, R2 must be placed on second base.

R1 should be awarded home.

End result: still one out. One run scores. There are now runners on first and second base.

Once the obstructed runner is called out the ball becomes dead. R2 is placed at 2nd base, B/R at 1st base, and R1 would remain at 3rd base. No outs recorded on the play therefore you still have 1 out.
 

BretMan

Addicted to Softballfans
In my judgment, R1 would have scored had the play not been called dead. That is, R1 was affected by the obstruction and the umpire is allowed to place ALL runners who were affected by the obstruction.

Wouldn’t a runner going from third to home cross the plate easily on a 6-4-3 ground ball, with no play being made at the plate?

What justification is there for putting R1 back on third base?
 

DeputyUICHousto

Addicted to Softballfans
When F6 steps on 2nd base to retire R2 who was obstructed the ball immediately becomes dead. There's no way the runner would have crossed the plate prior to that.
 

AG# 1

Member
Once the obstructed runner is called out the ball becomes dead. R2 is placed at 2nd base, B/R at 1st base, and R1 would remain at 3rd base. No outs recorded on the play therefore you still have 1 out.


so you are saying that R2 would be awarded 2nd base even though it was a sharp hit ball and thrown immediately to 2nd?? where does the judgment of the umpire come in?? an OBS does not automatically give the runner the next base, the rule states
If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base which would have been reached had there not been obstruction, well in my judgment if there were no OBS he would have been out at 2nd
 

BretMan

Addicted to Softballfans
No, I’m not saying that R1 would have crossed the plate before the force out at second base.

I’m saying that had the ball not become dead due to a violation by the defense, R1 would have crossed the plate. The rule allows the umpire to place any and all runners affected by the obstruction, not just the obstructed runner. R1’s ability to advance and score was affected by the obstruction.

My understanding is that we can award the advanced base on a play like this.
 

BretMan

Addicted to Softballfans
AG#1: The rule says that the obstructed runner cannot be put out in between the two bases where obstruction occurred.

When the runner was put out, you have two choices. Put the obstructed runner on second base or first base. Except you can’t put him on first because the batter-runner will be placed on first base. So, you place the obstructed runner on second.

This is the official ruling supported by rule and case plays.
 

DeputyUICHousto

Addicted to Softballfans
AG#1: The rule says that the obstructed runner cannot be put out in between the two bases where obstruction occurred.

When the runner was put out, you have two choices. Put the obstructed runner on second base or first base. Except you can’t put him on first because the batter-runner will be placed on first base. So, you place the obstructed runner on second.

This is the official ruling supported by rule and case plays.

I don't think in the case that R1 would get the plate. I'm willing to change my mind if someone can convince me otherwise.
 
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