ilyk2win
Addicted to Softballfans
I don't think the association matters in this scenario.
Runner at 1B. Batter hits ground ball to INF. INF fields ball and throws to 1B. BR beats the throw = safe. R1 still has not reached 2B. 1B throws ball to MI who touches 2B bag prior to R1 getting there. Umpire called R1 OUT on the force. IMO correct call.
Context for my question:
Umpire next day texts BR to explain that he made the wrong call, that bc the initial throw was to 1B, it automatically takes the force off at 2B and it becomes a tag play. Doesn't sound accurate to me bc no out was recorded at 1B which means BR is the only one who has a right to 1B at that time, meaning R1 is still forced to 2B.
BR is an aspiring umpire who is now confused and wants to ensure he understand completely in the event he ever has to make such a weird call.
@EAJuggalo @eddieq @MaverickAH
Runner at 1B. Batter hits ground ball to INF. INF fields ball and throws to 1B. BR beats the throw = safe. R1 still has not reached 2B. 1B throws ball to MI who touches 2B bag prior to R1 getting there. Umpire called R1 OUT on the force. IMO correct call.
Context for my question:
Umpire next day texts BR to explain that he made the wrong call, that bc the initial throw was to 1B, it automatically takes the force off at 2B and it becomes a tag play. Doesn't sound accurate to me bc no out was recorded at 1B which means BR is the only one who has a right to 1B at that time, meaning R1 is still forced to 2B.
BR is an aspiring umpire who is now confused and wants to ensure he understand completely in the event he ever has to make such a weird call.
@EAJuggalo @eddieq @MaverickAH