Incorrect infield fly call

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vanmol

Member
HI---What is the proper procedure for correcting a wrongly called infield fly that is not caught. Can the ump change the call himself or does a team have to appeal it? I assume that if the ump reverses the call the batter is awarded 1st and all other runner move up 1 base.
 
NCASAUmp

NCASAUmp

Un-Retired
What exactly happened here? You are aware that an infield fly does not have to be caught, right?
 
bdiddy13

bdiddy13

Dream Killers
Once an infield fly is called the batter is out regardless of the ball being caught. Runners my advance at their own risk.
 
V

vanmol

Member
DeputyUICHousto said:
We need more information.
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My error, I should not have qualified the scenario with the ball being caught.

In this instance he call was obviously wrong, no infielder was able to easily make the catch. My question is should the umpire correct his call on his own or should he wait for an appeal? If the call is reversed, what to do with the runners and the batter?
 
Joker

Joker

Well-Known Member
so he called infield fly on a long fly ball to the outfield? give all the information
 
hitless45

hitless45

Addicted to Softballfans
DO OVER :D :rolleyes:

i beleive an infield fly call is a judgment call and cannot be appealed/protested therefore move on.. /thread
 
hitless45

hitless45

Addicted to Softballfans
Country469 said:
on the issue of the catch being "routine" or not yeah, but you can def protest an infield fly rule called with 2 outs
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js.. op does not mention that scenario and it seems he does not want to explain the scenario he just wants to know (if the ump reverses his own call) what happen to the runners so if figured id try to end this thread thats going nowhere
 
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Wayne 33

Banned User
sprtfan said:
Unless the ball is foul correct?
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Umpire should declare, "Infield fly if fair." The batter isn't out if the ball is touched and/or falls into or over foul territory. The ball can hit in fair territory and roll foul. Fair ball doesn't have to be caught for infield fly to take effect. It is in place to protect the runners.
 
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MaverickAH

MaverickAH

Well-Known Member
Wayne 33 said:
Umpire should declare, "Infield fly if fair." The batter isn't out if the ball is touched and/or falls into or over foul territory. The ball can hit in fair territory and roll foul. Foul ball has to be caught for infield fly to take effect.
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Infield fly NEVER goes into effect on a foul ball. Caught or uncaught.
 
W

Wayne 33

Banned User
ureout said:
maverick... trust me he will cite a rule from Wayne's World of softball rules
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Just a little reminder. The runner is awarded the base they were going to whether you think they will make it or not.

Question for you, do you award the runner the next base base if the runner in front of them would be forced to advance because of the obstruction?
 
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ureout

The Veteran
61749-613aaaaa346e0d761118391b254e6c3e.jpg


I have two World Series rings from NABA and MSBL in Phoenix and World Champion ring from Dalton, GA. You' re merely projecting.
 
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Wayne 33

Banned User
MaverickAH said:
Infield fly NEVER goes into effect on a foul ball. Caught or uncaught.
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I'll try this one more time before it is deleted.

Notice where I said "Infield fly if fair". I wanted to see who would read it or post wisecracks. I will go back and correct it. I expect more comments to follow.

Thank you
 
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jbo911

jbo911

Super Moderator
Staff member
vanmol said:
My error, I should not have qualified the scenario with the ball being caught.

In this instance he call was obviously wrong, no infielder was able to easily make the catch. My question is should the umpire correct his call on his own or should he wait for an appeal? If the call is reversed, what to do with the runners and the batter?
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Did they make the catch our not?
 
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