USSSA Overruled Call

F

fthrmulcahy

The Veteran
Had this situation in a game and was wondering if my partner and I got this right...

1st and 3rd, one out. Grounder to 2B who throws to 1B who is somewhat late getting to the bag and swipes at it with his foot. My partner in the field rules 1B missed the base and calls the batter-runner safe. Runner from 3rd comes home, runner from 1st rounds second and heads for third, 1B throws to 3B and I call the runner out on the tag.

1B now says to my partner that he did touch the base and (actually very respectfully) asks my partner to ask me for help. My partner agrees and asks me. I did see 1B touch the base and after I tell my partner that he changes the call to out.

Now here's my question...is that overruled out at 1st the second or third out? We conferred and neither of us was certain so we ruled it the second out, allowing the run to score and giving each team something to be happy about. But is that overrule the third out, negating the run? Thanks in advance...
 
Joker

Joker

Well-Known Member
the ruling of the out or not at 1st had no bearing on the rest of the play. since it was a tag out at 3B, the timing of when the runner scored would matter
 
F

fthrmulcahy

The Veteran
Joker said:
the ruling of the out or not at 1st had no bearing on the rest of the play. since it was a tag out at 3B, the timing of when the runner scored would matter
Click to expand...

That was the crux of my question...if the out at first was the third out (and clearly thanks to NCASA I know it's not) then the third out would be the B-R at first, negating the run.
 
Sully

Sully

Wanna buy jerseys/rings?
fthrmulcahy said:
Had this situation in a game and was wondering if my partner and I got this right...

1st and 3rd, one out. Grounder to 2B who throws to 1B who is somewhat late getting to the bag and swipes at it with his foot. My partner in the field rules 1B missed the base and calls the batter-runner safe. Runner from 3rd comes home, runner from 1st rounds second and heads for third, 1B throws to 3B and I call the runner out on the tag.

1B now says to my partner that he did touch the base and (actually very respectfully) asks my partner to ask me for help. My partner agrees and asks me. I did see 1B touch the base and after I tell my partner that he changes the call to out.

Now here's my question...is that overruled out at 1st the second or third out? We conferred and neither of us was certain so we ruled it the second out, allowing the run to score and giving each team something to be happy about. But is that overrule the third out, negating the run? Thanks in advance...
Click to expand...

You got it right, but was your question asking if the same guy was the 2nd and 3rd out on the same hit?
 
beernbombs

beernbombs

Abby's dad
Sully said:
You got it right, but was your question asking if the same guy was the 2nd and 3rd out on the same hit?
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No. There was a runner on first that was tagged out attempting to get to third. That was originally the 2nd out. Became the 3rd out after the umpire conferred and ruled batter runner out at first.
 
NCASAUmp

NCASAUmp

Un-Retired
And the reason he's asking is because if the batter-runner had been the third out, then the runner from third would not count.
 
blakcherry329

blakcherry329

Well-Known Member
beernbombs said:
No, it makes sense. You must be reading it wrong.
Click to expand...
in a nutshell, i read...

first and 3rd, one out. grounder to 2b. He throws to 1b, who covered late. Called safe. runner, originally on 1b, tried to go to 3rd, gets tagged out. Now all this is going on and the runner on 3rd doesn't score??? that's what doesn't make sense.
it wasn't a force situation double play, so the run counts.
 
AH23

AH23

Addicted to Softballfans
blakcherry329 said:
in a nutshell, i read...

first and 3rd, one out. grounder to 2b. He throws to 1b, who covered late. Called safe. runner, originally on 1b, tried to go to 3rd, gets tagged out. Now all this is going on and the runner on 3rd doesn't score??? that's what doesn't make sense.
it wasn't a force situation double play, so the run counts.
Click to expand...

You're reading it wrong.

Runners 1st and 3rd
ball in play
play at first (missed call) - same time runner coming from 3rd goes home
runner from 1B has touched 2nd and gets put out going to 3rd
appeal at 1B
 
blakcherry329

blakcherry329

Well-Known Member
AH23 said:
You're reading it wrong.

Runners 1st and 3rd
ball in play
play at first (missed call) - same time runner coming from 3rd goes home
runner from 1B has touched 2nd and gets put out going to 3rd
appeal at 1B
Click to expand...
Am i missing something or is that not what I typed? I just left out the appeal, because it doesn't matter. It's not a force situation, so the batter doesn't have reach 1st base for the run to count.
So you're telling me, in the time it took for the 2b to throw to first then the 1b throw to 3rd, the runner didn't score?

That's the part I don't understand.
 
Joker

Joker

Well-Known Member
the runner from 3rd did score

that is the whole point of this thread. if the run scoring would count or not
 
blakcherry329

blakcherry329

Well-Known Member
The real question was if the batter was the 2nd or 3rd out, because of the appeal. Ahhhhh I see, now. lol. It just seemed obvious to me that the the batter was the 2nd out, in this scenario, that I didn't think that was ever in question, so how could the run not score.

my bad. lol
 
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