hookumsnivy
Addicted to Softballfans
There have been many threads on overthrows and reading through the threads that quoted the rulebook I noticed something subtle but potentially very meaningful:
One of the more established umps on here specifically mentioned that it is the position of the runner that determines the award (like the rule states) and not the last base touched at the time of the throw. This is relevant when a runner rounds a base without actually touching it.
However, there is an exception that struck me as odd:
The above exception specifically states that the award is from the last base touched.
I find that to be very interesting and it brings me to this question (purely hypothetical):
Scenario:
R1 on 1st, Batter hits a line drive to the gap. R1 rounds 2nd without touching it and heads to 3rd. BR rounds 1st without touching it and heads to 2nd. Throw comes in to 3rd base from the OF. 3rd baseman attempts a swipe tag on R1, loses the ball and it rolls out of play. At the time the ball went into dead ball territory R1 touched 3rd, BR has not yet touched 2nd.
What are the runners awarded by the umpire? Technically speaking R1 would be awarded home because he touched 3rd (though if he doesn't go back to touch 2nd the defense could appeal), and BR would be awarded 1st since he hasn't touched a base yet. However, missing a base is an appeal play by the defense so does the ump award BR 1st base or 2nd base? Seems like a contradiction of rules because we typically make the call based on the assumption that the base was touched unless appealed.
When the ball is live and is overthrown or is blocked:
EFFECT: All runners shall be awarded two bases. The award shall be governed
by the position of the runners when the ball left the felder’s hand.
One of the more established umps on here specifically mentioned that it is the position of the runner that determines the award (like the rule states) and not the last base touched at the time of the throw. This is relevant when a runner rounds a base without actually touching it.
However, there is an exception that struck me as odd:
EXCEPTION:
1. When a felder loses possession of the ball, and the ball leaves live ball
territory or becomes blocked.
EFFECT: Each runner is awarded one base from the last base touched
at the time the ball entered the dead ball area or became blocked.
The above exception specifically states that the award is from the last base touched.
I find that to be very interesting and it brings me to this question (purely hypothetical):
Scenario:
R1 on 1st, Batter hits a line drive to the gap. R1 rounds 2nd without touching it and heads to 3rd. BR rounds 1st without touching it and heads to 2nd. Throw comes in to 3rd base from the OF. 3rd baseman attempts a swipe tag on R1, loses the ball and it rolls out of play. At the time the ball went into dead ball territory R1 touched 3rd, BR has not yet touched 2nd.
What are the runners awarded by the umpire? Technically speaking R1 would be awarded home because he touched 3rd (though if he doesn't go back to touch 2nd the defense could appeal), and BR would be awarded 1st since he hasn't touched a base yet. However, missing a base is an appeal play by the defense so does the ump award BR 1st base or 2nd base? Seems like a contradiction of rules because we typically make the call based on the assumption that the base was touched unless appealed.
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