ASA Batted ball hits runner questions.

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cozzmokramer

Addicted to Softballfans
Question 1:
Runners on 1st and 2nd, no outs. Hard ground ball up the middle to shortstop side of pitcher. Pitcher reaches glove out and just misses making the play (he does not touch the ball). The ball then hits the runner as he is advancing to 3rd. The umpire calls the runner out. I ask the umpire if "did the pitcher make a play on the ball"? He acted as if he didn't know why I was asking and said "the ball hit the runner by the shortstop and he's out". The shortstop clearly had no play on the ball, it would have went into the outfield if it didn't hit the runner. I didn't argue any further, this is a league with out paid umps and I just let it go. Wasn't a big deal, but I was just wondering what the right call is.

My question is, if a fielder makes a play on the ball and then the ball subsequently hits a runner behind them, isn't that runner 'safe'? Dunno if this applies to the pitcher, but just curious.

I could be wrong, but I thought this was the rule.

Question 2:
Also, I was wondering if the base is a 'safe haven' for a batted ball? Example: if a runner is standing on the base and is hit by a batted ball is he safe our out? Someone once told me the rule is different in baseball and softball, but just wanted to find out.

Thanks for any help.
 
eddieq

eddieq

The Great and Powerful Q
Was the SS behind the runner when it hit him? If so, I have an out. Dead ball. Batter/runner is awarded first base. No other runners advance unless forced.

On question 2, the base is only a safe haven if the contact with the ball wasn't intentional. Example - runner standing on first. Batter smokes a ball and it nails him. Live ball, play on. Same situation, but the runner puts his arms out and contacts the ball. Dead ball. Runner out on interference. B/R is awarded first base. No runners advance unless forced.
 
NCASAUmp

NCASAUmp

Un-Retired
cozzmokramer said:
SS was NOT behind runner when hit by the ball. The SS had no play on the ball.
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Whether or not the SS had a play on the ball is irrelevant.

If the ball strikes a runner off of their base and it had not yet passed an infielder other than the pitcher, then that runner is out, runners return to the last base touched at the time of the interference, the batter-runner is awarded first base, and any runners forced to advance will advance.
 
eddieq

eddieq

The Great and Powerful Q
cozzmokramer said:
SS was NOT behind runner when hit by the ball. The SS had no play on the ball.
Click to expand...

NCASAUmp said:
Whether or not the SS had a play on the ball is irrelevant.

If the ball strikes a runner off of their base and it had not yet passed an infielder other than the pitcher, then that runner is out, runners return to the last base touched at the time of the interference, the batter-runner is awarded first base, and any runners forced to advance will advance.
Click to expand...

Yeah, when I asked about "behind", I meant did the ball pass the fielder yet. I need to learn to be more clear.

But hey, I hustled on this one :D
 
C

cozzmokramer

Addicted to Softballfans
NCASAUmp said:
Whether or not the SS had a play on the ball is irrelevant.

If the ball strikes a runner off of their base and it had not yet passed an infielder other than the pitcher, then that runner is out, runners return to the last base touched at the time of the interference, the batter-runner is awarded first base, and any runners forced to advance will advance.
Click to expand...

Makes sense about any infielder other than pitcher. I wasn't for sure on this, so I thought I would ask here. Thanks.

So hypothetically, if the bases would have been full, the runner on third gets to score, correct?

Also, if the runner intentionally gets hit by the ball to prevent a double play it's only one out, right? You can never assume a double play right? (For example in Co-Ed where you may just get hit on purpose to avoid the double play to bring your power hitting guy up)
 
steven_wht

steven_wht

Addicted to Softballfans
cozzmokramer said:
Makes sense about any infielder other than pitcher. I wasn't for sure on this, so I thought I would ask here. Thanks.

So hypothetically, if the bases would have been full, the runner on third gets to score, correct?

Also, if the runner intentionally gets hit by the ball to prevent a double play it's only one out, right? You can never assume a double play right? (For example in Co-Ed where you may just get hit on purpose to avoid the double play to bring your power hitting guy up)
Click to expand...

dead ball, runner is out, batter is awarded first. no runs score
 
eddieq

eddieq

The Great and Powerful Q
cozzmokramer said:
So the "any runners forced to advance will advance" is wrong?
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In this situation, you'll never have someone forced home. Some runner is going to be out. Assume bases are loaded. R1 on third, R2 on 2nd, R3 on first. B/R hits the ball and it nails R2. He's out. Dead ball. B/R is awarded 1st, R3 goes to 2nd, but since R2 is out, nobody is forcing R1 off of third. No runs score no matter which runner the ball hits.
 
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cozzmokramer

Addicted to Softballfans
Okay, sounds good. I didn't know if it mattered it was a ground ball or not. So basically you are saying it's just like a ground ball where the shortstop tags the runner and then throws home and the catcher has to tag the runner. Makes sense.
 
NCASAUmp

NCASAUmp

Un-Retired
eddieq said:
Yeah, when I asked about "behind", I meant did the ball pass the fielder yet. I need to learn to be more clear.

But hey, I hustled on this one :D
Click to expand...

I was busy taking the driveshaft off of my Jeep. :p

It was blocking a part I needed to replace.
 
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