Mongo23
Manager
I play in a Sunday morning modified league and the ump we had for the Fathers day game was awful. But one "call" he made baffled me:
Leadoff hitter up, he puts one in a gap and tries to leg out a double. Firstbaseman for the other team is slightly out of position and our hitter has to try and avoid hitting him. Runner is safe going into second but over runs the base, and gets tagged out trying to get back to second. Ump calls him out, which would be the right call... BUT ump then says the firstbaseman obstructed the play, HOWEVER he says the runner is still out because he continued the play at his own risk so no obstruction. When runner asks why the ump didn't call out for obstruction, ump said he didn't want to yell out and disrupt the play.
I've played ball my whole life but interference and obstruction calls still have shades of grey for me because they are rare. But, once an obstruction occurs, I thought the play was dead and runners were placed in appropriate spots. Am I wrong or was this umpire an idiot?
Thanks for helping clarify this for me.
Leadoff hitter up, he puts one in a gap and tries to leg out a double. Firstbaseman for the other team is slightly out of position and our hitter has to try and avoid hitting him. Runner is safe going into second but over runs the base, and gets tagged out trying to get back to second. Ump calls him out, which would be the right call... BUT ump then says the firstbaseman obstructed the play, HOWEVER he says the runner is still out because he continued the play at his own risk so no obstruction. When runner asks why the ump didn't call out for obstruction, ump said he didn't want to yell out and disrupt the play.
I've played ball my whole life but interference and obstruction calls still have shades of grey for me because they are rare. But, once an obstruction occurs, I thought the play was dead and runners were placed in appropriate spots. Am I wrong or was this umpire an idiot?
Thanks for helping clarify this for me.